Domhnaillín Breac wrote:
Deghebh wrote:
indeed, I was not calling anyone a NAZI.
What I was complaining about was the method of perpetrating propaganda by quietly setting objectionable truths aside, and renewing the attack from a different angle.
Countless people throughout history have done that--and are doing it today. Yet you specifically chose for your comparison the one who was a well-known Nazi. That's a naked attempt to zhuge up an
argumentum ad hominem.
I didn't "quietly set objectionable truths aside". You hadn't presented any--and still haven't. Reply to the factual points of my counterargument, if you can. If not,
bí id' thost.
I was not ever, anywhere presenting 'truths'.
I was presenting coincidences.
It i NOT for me to prove that the coincidences are more than coincidences.
It is for YOU to PROVE that coincidences is all they are.
That is, I provide a hypothesis, and you destroy it.
It is IMPOSSIBLE to PROVE a hypothesis other than by failing to destroy it, indeed, that is what 'prove' means.
You show that the hypothesis forces a contradiction of itself.
I have shown that there are similarities, and some of these similarities go very deep.
Yes the consonants in Arab are the reverse of those in Hebrew, but the reversal of syllables is not uncommon. It happens frequently in Irish, if it improves euphony.
I do not need to prove that the Sunnite Arabs are Hebrews.
That is an accepted fact, by all who do not pretend that Hebrew = Jew = Hebrew.
The Hebrew and Arab 'alphabets' may not be identical, but there is a huge amount of commonality, and apart from artefacts of style, similar glyphs represent similar sounds.
The correspondence is closer than between English and Cyrillic, or so it seems to me.
Certainly the alphabets are of the same type, and represent sounds of the same type.
In both, Alif is not a vowel, but an opening glottal stop. It would be the beginning character of both Orange and Apple.
Ain in both is a 'voiced H', at least, that is how it was explained to me when I was in Arabia.
So here I am speaking from experience.
Do you accept that, as far as it goes, or do I have to prove that I draw breath?
No, I do not recall where I heard, or read that Brithonic and Godelic Celtic dialects were interintelligible up to AD500, it might even have been in one of the books in my library.
I accept, from what I have seen trying to find that source, that I might be out by 1000 years, for the split is set in the texts I now find, at around 500BC. Still, the tradition I seem to have picked up of the Romans of some degree of interintelligibility around AD0 is a possibility, maybe the merchant specialized in biligualism for reasons of trade. Bilingualism beween Godelic and Brithonic is still relatively simple: easier then English/French.
But that is relatively unimportant.
Surely I do not need to prove that there was contact between Afro-Asian groups, and Indo-European groups about the turn of the era.
Galacia is but a stone's throw from Syria.
The assumption that Galilee was also Celtic does have some traditional support, though it is denied strongly by many, especially, by the Jews.
Surely much of this is common knowledge.
Now is this an acceptable basis, or are my eyes crossed and teas dotted?